Ethio Quizzes

📄BIOLOGY Questions

1. Which of the following is an example of a simple carbohydrate?
a. Starch
b. Cellulose
c. Glucose
d. Glycogen

2. Which of the following is an example of a complex carbohydrate?
a. Glucose
b. Sucrose
c. Starch
d. Fructose

3. Which of the following vitamins is water-soluble?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin C

4. Which of the following minerals is important for bone health?
a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Zinc
d. Selenium



5. Which of the following trace minerals is required for the synthesis of thyroid hormones?
a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Iodine
d. Copper

6.  Which of the following is a condition that can occur due to a lack of carbohydrates in the diet?
a. Diabetes
b. Obesity
c. Anemia
d. Ketosis

7. Which of the following is a common symptom of iron deficiency?
a. Diarrhea
b. Anemia
c. Night blindness
d. Beriberi

8. An elderly man complains of poor night vision. Ophthalmic exam reveals corneal lesions and retinal hemorrhages. Which vitamin deficiency is most probable?
a) Thiamine
b) Niacin
c) Vitamin A
d) Vitamin C

9. What is the probability of having a child with cystic fibrosis if both parents are carriers of the gene but do not have the disease?
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%

10. An older adult with a poor diet is diagnosed with megaloblastic anemia. Which vitamin deficiency is the most probable cause?
a) Folate
b) Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D

11. Which of the following is an example of a dominant genetic disorder?
a. Huntington's disease
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Hemophilia

12. Which of the following is a bacterial disease that is typically spread through contaminated food or water?
a. Tuberculosis
b. Tetanus
c. Cholera
d. Malaria

13. Which of the following is a common method of controlling the growth of microorganisms in food?
a. Refrigeration
b. Exposure to sunlight
c. Adding sugar
d. Washing with soap and water

14. Which of the following is a recommended way to reduce the risk of heart disease?
a. Smoking cigarettes
b. Eating a high-fat diet
c. Regular exercise
d. Avoiding fruits and vegetables

15. A 4-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of bone pain and difficulty walking. Physical examination reveals bowed legs and enlarged joints. Radiographic findings show abnormal bone growth. Which vitamin deficiency is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

A. Marasmus
B. Scurvy
C. Rickets
D. Kwashiorkor

Answers

1. c. Glucose - Glucose is a simple carbohydrate (monosaccharide).

2. c. Starch - Starch is a complex carbohydrate (polysaccharide).

3. d. Vitamin C - Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin.

4. b. Calcium - Calcium is important for bone health.

5. c. Iodine - Iodine is required for the synthesis of thyroid hormones.

6. d. Ketosis - Ketosis can occur due to a lack of carbohydrates in the diet.

7. b. Anemia - Anemia is a common symptom of iron deficiency.

8. c) Vitamin A - Poor night vision and corneal lesions suggest a vitamin A deficiency.

9. b. 25% - If both parents are carriers of the cystic fibrosis gene, there is a 25% chance their child will have the disease.

10. a) Folate or b) Vitamin B12 - Both deficiencies can cause megaloblastic anemia, but if forced to choose, b) Vitamin B12 is often more closely associated with this condition in older adults.

11. a. Huntington's disease - Huntington's disease is an example of a dominant genetic disorder.

12. c. Cholera - Cholera is a bacterial disease typically spread through contaminated food or water.

13. a. Refrigeration - Refrigeration is a common method of controlling the growth of microorganisms in food.

14. c. Regular exercise - Regular exercise is recommended to reduce the risk of heart disease.

15. C. Rickets - The symptoms described (bone pain, difficulty walking, bowed legs, and enlarged joints) are indicative of rickets, which is caused by vitamin D deficiency.

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📌 BIOLOGY common questions about photosynthesis

1. What is the primary function of the light-dependent reactions in photosynthesis?
a) Production of glucose
b) Generation of ATP and NADPH
c) Absorption of carbon dioxide
d) Release of oxygen

2. Where do the light-dependent reactions take place in a plant cell?
a) Stroma
b) Thylakoid membrane
c) Cytoplasm
d) Nucleus

3. Which molecule is split during the light-dependent reactions to release oxygen?
a) Water
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Glucose
d) ATP

4. What is the role of photosystem II in the light-dependent reactions?
a) Production of NADPH
b) Absorption of light energy
c) Splitting water molecules
d) Release of oxygen

5. Which molecule acts as an electron carrier in the light-dependent reactions?
a) NADP+
b) ATP
c) Glucose
d) Carbon dioxide

6. What is the primary product of the light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle)?
a) Oxygen
b) Glucose
c) ATP
d) NADPH

7. In which part of the chloroplast does the Calvin cycle occur?
a) Thylakoid membrane
b) Stroma
c) Grana
d) Cytoplasm

8. What is the role of rubisco in the Calvin cycle?
a) Capture of light energy
b) Fixation of carbon dioxide
c) Production of ATP
d) Release of oxygen

9. How many molecules of G3P (glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate) are produced in one turn of the Calvin cycle?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6

10. What is the fate of most of the G3P molecules produced in the Calvin cycle?
a) Used to regenerate RuBP
b) Converted into glucose
c) Transferred to the light-dependent reactions
d) Released as waste products

11. Which molecule is responsible for providing the energy needed for the Calvin cycle?
a) ATP
b) NADPH
c) Water
d) Carbon dioxide

12. What is the role of the enzyme RuBisCO in the Calvin cycle?
a) Splitting water molecules
b) Regeneration of RuBP
c) Fixation of carbon dioxide
d) Production of glucose

13. During the light-independent reactions, what happens to the carbon atoms from carbon dioxide?
a) They are released as waste products
b) They are used to produce ATP
c) They are incorporated into organic molecules
d) They are converted into oxygen

14. Which molecule is regenerated at the end of the Calvin cycle to continue the process?
a) RuBP (ribulose bisphosphate)
b) G3P (glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate)
c) NADP+
d) ATP

15. What is the overall purpose of both the light-dependent and light-independent reactions in photosynthesis?
a) To produce oxygen for cellular respiration
b) To convert light energy into chemical energy (ATP and NADPH)
c) To release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
d) To produce water as a byproduct

📍 Answer

1. b) Generation of ATP and NADPH

2. b) Thylakoid membrane

3.  a) Water

4. b) Absorption of light energy (and also c) Splitting water molecules)

5.  a) NADP+

6. b) Glucose

7.  b) Stroma

8.  b) Fixation of carbon dioxide

9.  a) 1 (Note: Two G3P molecules are needed to form one glucose, but one turn produces one G3P.)

10. a) Used to regenerate RuBP

11.  a) ATP (NADPH provides reducing power, but ATP provides energy.)

12.  c) Fixation of carbon dioxide

13. c) They are incorporated into organic molecules

14. a) RuBP (ribulose bisphosphate)

15.  b) To convert light energy into chemical energy (ATP and NADPH)

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📌 Geography Common Questions about Map Reading

Instructions: Choose the best answer for each question.

1. What is the primary purpose of a map?
a) To show the exact location of every object on Earth
b) To depict the Earth's surface in a reduced and simplified form
c) To provide a detailed account of the history of a region
d) To illustrate the distribution of natural resources

Answer: b) To depict the Earth's surface in a reduced and simplified form

2. Which of the following is NOT a common type of map?
a) Political map
b) Physical map
c) Topographic map
d) Astronomical map

Answer: d) Astronomical map

3. What is a map scale?
a) The distance between two points on a map
b) The ratio between the distance on a map and the corresponding distance on the ground
c) The total area covered by a map
d) The number of features shown on a map

Answer: b) The ratio between the distance on a map and the corresponding distance on the ground

4. What do contour lines on a topographic map represent?
a) Different types of vegetation
b) Changes in elevation
c) Boundaries between political units
d) Directions of major roads

Answer: b) Changes in elevation

5. What is the difference between a compass rose and a map legend?
a) A compass rose shows directions, while a map legend explains map symbols
b) A compass rose shows map symbols, while a map legend explains directions
c) Both show the same information
d) Neither shows important information

Answer: a) A compass rose shows directions, while a map legend explains map symbols

6. Which direction does North typically point on a compass?
a) Up
b) Down
c) Left
d) Right

Answer: a) Up

7. What is a grid system used for on a map?
a) To measure the area of a map
b) To determine the exact location of points on a map
c) To represent different types of terrain
d) To show the boundaries of political units

Answer: b) To determine the exact location of points on a map

8. What is a map projection?
a) A method for representing the Earth's curved surface on a flat map
b) A system of lines that divide a map into squares
c) A scale that shows the distance between two points on a map
d) A legend that explains the symbols used on a map

Answer: a) A method for representing the Earth's curved surface on a flat map

9. What is the main disadvantage of a Mercator projection?
a) It distorts shapes and sizes of landmasses near the poles
b) It is difficult to use for navigation
c) It only shows a small portion of the Earth's surface
d) It is not accurate for representing distances

Answer: a) It distorts shapes and sizes of landmasses near the poles

10. What is a GPS (Global Positioning System)?
a) A system for determining the location of a point on Earth
b) A map that shows the location of all GPS satellites
c) A device for measuring distances on a map
d) A method for creating map projections

Answer: a) A system for determining the location of a point on Earth

11. Which of the following is NOT a common map symbol?
a) Dot
b) Star
c) Triangle
d) Circle

Answer: b) Star

12. What is the difference between a map and a globe?
a) A map is flat, while a globe is three-dimensional
b) A map shows a larger area than a globe
c) A globe is more accurate than a map
d) A map is more portable than a globe

Answer: a) A map is flat, while a globe is three-dimensional

13. What is the best type of map to use for planning a hiking trip?
a) Political map
b) Physical map
c) Topographic map
d) Road map

Answer: c) Topographic map

14. How can you determine the elevation of a point on a topographic map?
a) By reading the contour lines
b) By looking at the map scale
c) By using a compass
d) By measuring the distance between two points

Answer: a) By reading the contour lines

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📌 Economics Common questions on micro and macro economics

Instructions: Choose the best answer for each question.

1. Which of the following is a core concept in macroeconomics?
a) Supply and demand
b) Market equilibrium
c) National income
d) Consumer behavior

Answer: c) National income

2. What is the primary focus of microeconomics?
a) The behavior of individual consumers and firms
b) The overall performance of the economy
c) The role of government in the economy
d) The effects of international trade

Answer: a) The behavior of individual consumers and firms

3. Which of these is NOT a key macroeconomic indicator?
a) Inflation rate
b) Unemployment rate
c) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
d) Market share of a particular company

Answer: d) Market share of a particular company

4. What is the difference between a recession and a depression?
a) A recession is a short-term downturn, while a depression is a prolonged and severe downturn
b) A recession is caused by inflation, while a depression is caused by deflation
c) A recession affects only a few industries, while a depression affects all industries
d) There is no difference; the terms are interchangeable

Answer: a) A recession is a short-term downturn, while a depression is a prolonged and severe downturn

5. What is the main goal of monetary policy?
a) To regulate the money supply and interest rates
b) To control government spending and taxation
c) To promote fair competition in the marketplace
d) To protect consumer rights

Answer: a) To regulate the money supply and interest rates

6. What is the main goal of fiscal policy?
a) To regulate the money supply and interest rates
b) To control government spending and taxation
c) To promote fair competition in the marketplace
d) To protect consumer rights

Answer: b) To control government spending and taxation

7. What is the concept of opportunity cost?
a) The cost of producing a good or service
b) The value of the next best alternative forgone
c) The cost of borrowing money
d) The cost of living

Answer: b) The value of the next best alternative forgone

8. What is the law of supply?
a) As the price of a good increases, the quantity supplied decreases
b) As the price of a good increases, the quantity supplied increases
c) As the price of a good decreases, the quantity demanded increases
d) As the price of a good decreases, the quantity demanded decreases

Answer: b) As the price of a good increases, the quantity supplied increases

9. What is the law of demand?
a) As the price of a good increases, the quantity demanded decreases
b) As the price of a good increases, the quantity demanded increases
c) As the price of a good decreases, the quantity demanded increases
d) As the price of a good decreases, the quantity demanded decreases

Answer: a) As the price of a good increases, the quantity demanded decreases

10. What is market equilibrium?
a) The point where supply and demand are equal
b) The point where prices are at their highest
c) The point where profits are maximized
d) The point where production is maximized

Answer: a) The point where supply and demand are equal

11. What is the difference between a price floor and a price ceiling?
a) A price floor is a minimum price, while a price ceiling is a maximum price
b) A price floor is a maximum price, while a price ceiling is a minimum price
c) A price floor is set by the government, while a price ceiling is set by the market
d) A price floor is set by the market, while a price ceiling is set by the government

Answer: a) A price floor is a minimum price, while a price ceiling is a maximum price

12. Which of the following is a characteristic of a perfectly competitive market?
a) Many sellers, each with a small market share
b) Homogeneous products
c) Free entry and exit
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

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📌 Chemistry common questions about Periodic Table Trends

Instructions: Choose the single best answer for each question.

1.  Which of the following properties generally INCREASES from left to right across a period in the periodic table?
     a) Atomic radius
     b) Ionization energy
     c) Metallic character
     d) Number of electron shells
    
Answer: b) Ionization energy

2.  Which element has the highest electronegativity?
     a)  Fluorine (F)
     b)  Chlorine (Cl)
     c)  Francium (Fr)
     d)  Oxygen (O)


     Answer: a) Fluorine (F)

3.  As you move down a group in the periodic table, atomic radius generally:
     a)  Increases
     b)  Decreases
     c)  Remains constant
     d)  Shows no consistent trend


     Answer: a) Increases

4.  Which of these elements would be expected to have the largest ionic radius?
     a)  Li⁺ 
     b)  Na⁺ 
     c)  K⁺ 
     d)  Rb⁺
  

  Answer: d) Rb⁺

5.  Which of the following elements has the lowest first ionization energy?
     a)  Helium (He)
     b)  Sodium (Na)
     c)  Neon (Ne)
     d)  Argon (Ar)
  

  Answer: b) Sodium (Na)

6.  Electron affinity is best defined as the:
     a)  Energy required to remove an electron from an atom.
     b)  Tendency of an atom to attract electrons towards itself in a chemical bond.
     c)  Energy released or absorbed when an electron is added to a neutral atom.
     d)  Energy difference between the highest occupied and lowest unoccupied energy levels.
  
  Answer: c) Energy released or absorbed when an electron is added to a neutral atom.

7.  Which of these elements exhibits the most metallic character?
     a)  Carbon (C)
     b)  Silicon (Si)
     c)  Germanium (Ge)
     d)  Tin (Sn)
    

Answer: d) Tin (Sn)

8.  Which of the following is a TRUE statement about electronegativity?
     a)  It is the same as electron affinity.
     b)  It only applies to ionic bonds.
     c)  It is a measure of an atom's ability to attract shared electrons in a covalent bond.
     d)  It increases down a group in the periodic table.
    

Answer: c) It is a measure of an atom's ability to attract shared electrons in a covalent bond.

9.  Elements in the same group (vertical column) of the periodic table share similar chemical properties. This is primarily because they have the same:
     a) Number of protons
     b)  Atomic mass
     c)  Number of valence electrons
     d)  Number of neutrons
    

Answer: c)  Number of valence electrons

10.  Which of the following correctly explains the general trend of ionization energy in the periodic table?
      a)  Increases across a period due to increasing nuclear charge.
      b)  Decreases down a group due to increasing shielding effect.
      c)  Both a and b
      d)  Neither a nor b
     

Answer: c)  Both a and b

11.  Elements with high electronegativity tend to form:
      a)  Positive ions (cations)
      b)  Negative ions (anions)
      c)  Metallic bonds
      d)  No ions at all
     

Answer: b)  Negative ions (anions)

12.  Which of the following statements about atomic radius is FALSE?
      a)  Cations are smaller than their parent atoms.
      b)  Anions are larger than their parent atoms.
      c)  Atomic radius increases as you move to the right across a period.
      d)  Atomic radius is influenced by the number of electron shells.
     

Answer: c)  Atomic radius increases as you move to the right across a period.

13.  Which periodic trend is responsible for the increasing reactivity of alkali metals (Group 1) as you move down the group?
      a)  Decreasing ionization energy
      b)  Increasing electronegativity
      c)  Increasing electron affinity
      d)  Decreasing atomic radius
     

Answer: a)  Decreasing ionization energy

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📚Chemistry common questions about Periodic Table Trends

Instructions: Choose the single best answer for each question.

1.  Which of the following properties generally INCREASES from left to right across a period in the periodic table?
     a) Atomic radius
     b) Ionization energy
     c) Metallic character
     d) Number of electron shells
    
Answer: b) Ionization energy

2.  Which element has the highest electronegativity?
     a)  Fluorine (F)
     b)  Chlorine (Cl)
     c)  Francium (Fr)
     d)  Oxygen (O)


     Answer: a) Fluorine (F)

3.  As you move down a group in the periodic table, atomic radius generally:
     a)  Increases
     b)  Decreases
     c)  Remains constant
     d)  Shows no consistent trend


     Answer: a) Increases

4.  Which of these elements would be expected to have the largest ionic radius?
     a)  Li⁺ 
     b)  Na⁺ 
     c)  K⁺ 
     d)  Rb⁺
  

  Answer: d) Rb⁺

5.  Which of the following elements has the lowest first ionization energy?
     a)  Helium (He)
     b)  Sodium (Na)
     c)  Neon (Ne)
     d)  Argon (Ar)
  

  Answer: b) Sodium (Na)

6.  Electron affinity is best defined as the:
     a)  Energy required to remove an electron from an atom.
     b)  Tendency of an atom to attract electrons towards itself in a chemical bond.
     c)  Energy released or absorbed when an electron is added to a neutral atom.
     d)  Energy difference between the highest occupied and lowest unoccupied energy levels.
  
  Answer: c) Energy released or absorbed when an electron is added to a neutral atom.

7.  Which of these elements exhibits the most metallic character?
     a)  Carbon (C)
     b)  Silicon (Si)
     c)  Germanium (Ge)
     d)  Tin (Sn)
    

Answer: d) Tin (Sn)

8.  Which of the following is a TRUE statement about electronegativity?
     a)  It is the same as electron affinity.
     b)  It only applies to ionic bonds.
     c)  It is a measure of an atom's ability to attract shared electrons in a covalent bond.
     d)  It increases down a group in the periodic table.
    

Answer: c) It is a measure of an atom's ability to attract shared electrons in a covalent bond.

9.  Elements in the same group (vertical column) of the periodic table share similar chemical properties. This is primarily because they have the same:
     a) Number of protons
     b)  Atomic mass
     c)  Number of valence electrons
     d)  Number of neutrons
    

Answer: c)  Number of valence electrons

10.  Which of the following correctly explains the general trend of ionization energy in the periodic table?
      a)  Increases across a period due to increasing nuclear charge.
      b)  Decreases down a group due to increasing shielding effect.
      c)  Both a and b
      d)  Neither a nor b
     

Answer: c)  Both a and b

11.  Elements with high electronegativity tend to form:
      a)  Positive ions (cations)
      b)  Negative ions (anions)
      c)  Metallic bonds
      d)  No ions at all
     

Answer: b)  Negative ions (anions)

12.  Which of the following statements about atomic radius is FALSE?
      a)  Cations are smaller than their parent atoms.
      b)  Anions are larger than their parent atoms.
      c)  Atomic radius increases as you move to the right across a period.
      d)  Atomic radius is influenced by the number of electron shells.
     

Answer: c)  Atomic radius increases as you move to the right across a period.

13.  Which periodic trend is responsible for the increasing reactivity of alkali metals (Group 1) as you move down the group?
      a)  Decreasing ionization energy
      b)  Increasing electronegativity
      c)  Increasing electron affinity
      d)  Decreasing atomic radius
     
Answer: a)  Decreasing ionization energy

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Choose the correctly punctuated sentence:
A. However I don’t agree with your idea.
B. However, I don’t agree with your idea.
C. However I, don’t agree with your idea.
D. However I don’t, agree with your idea.

Explanation:
Option B is correct. A comma is used after introductory words (e.g., "However," "Therefore," "Meanwhile") to set them off from the main sentence.

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Which sentence is correctly punctuated?
A. She wore a bright red dress.
B. She wore a bright, red dress.
C. She wore a bright, red, dress.
D. She wore bright red, dress.

Explanation:
Option A is correct. No comma is needed here because "bright" and "red" are not of equal rank (you cannot add "and" between them). If adjectives can be reversed or separated by "and," then a comma is needed.

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📌 Grade 11
Unit 1: Formation of the Continents 

Unit 2: Climate Classification and Climate Regions of Our World 

Unit 3: Natural Resources and Conflicts Over Resources 

Unit 4: Global Population Dynamics and Challenges 

_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_

1. Which theory explains the movement of Earth's continents? 
   a) Plate Tectonics 
   b) Big Bang Theory 
   c) Gravitational Collapse 
   d) Evolution 

2. The supercontinent that existed about 300 million years ago is called: 
   a) Gondwana 
   b) Pangaea 
   c) Laurasia 
   d) Eurasia 

3. What causes tectonic plates to move? 
   a) Gravitational pull from the moon 
   b) Convection currents in the mantle 
   c) Earth's magnetic field 
   d) Solar energy 

4. The boundary where two tectonic plates collide is known as: 
   a) Divergent boundary 
   b) Convergent boundary 
   c) Transform boundary 
   d) Fault line 

5. Which of the following is a result of plate tectonics? 
   a) Earthquakes 
   b) Mountain formation 
   c) Volcanic eruptions 
   d) All of the above 

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6. Climate is defined as: 
   a) Short-term atmospheric conditions 
   b) Long-term weather patterns in a region 
   c) The average temperature of the Earth 
   d) Daily weather updates 

7. Who developed the most widely used climate classification system? 
   a) Alfred Wegener 
   b) Wladimir Köppen 
   c) Carl Sagan 
   d) Charles Darwin 

8. Tropical climates are typically found: 
   a) Near the poles 
   b) Near the equator 
   c) In temperate zones 
   d) In high-altitude regions 

9. What type of climate is characterized by hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters? 
   a) Tundra 
   b) Mediterranean 
   c) Tropical rainforest 
   d) Desert 

10. Which region experiences the least rainfall? 
    a) Rainforests 
    b) Deserts 
    c) Tundra 
    d) Grasslands 

11. Natural resources that can replenish themselves over time are called: 
    a) Non-renewable resources 
    b) Renewable resources 
    c) Fossil fuels 
    d) Mineral resources 

12. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource? 
    a) Wind energy 
    b) Solar energy 
    c) Coal 
    d) Freshwater 

13. Conflicts over natural resources are often caused by: 
    a) Resource scarcity 
    b) Unequal distribution 
    c) Overexploitation 
    d) All of the above 

14. What is the term for using resources in a way that meets current needs without compromising future availability? 
    a) Industrialization 
    b) Sustainability 
    c) Conservation 
    d) Capitalism 

15. Which of the following resources is most closely associated with water scarcity conflicts? 
    a) Gold 
    b) Oil 
    c) Freshwater 
    d) Natural gas 

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16. Which term refers to the number of people living in a given area? 
    a) Population density 
    b) Birth rate 
    c) Mortality rate 
    d) Urbanization 

17. What is the primary cause of rapid population growth in many developing countries? 
    a) Low birth rates 
    b) Improved healthcare and sanitation 
    c) High mortality rates 
    d) Decreased food supply 

18. Which factor is a significant challenge of urbanization? 
    a) Overcrowding 
    b) Environmental degradation 
    c) Insufficient infrastructure 
    d) All of the above 

19. What is a population pyramid used to represent? 
    a) Migration patterns 
    b) Age and gender distribution of a population 
    c) Economic growth 
    d) Urban-rural divide 

20. The concept of carrying capacity refers to: 
    a) The maximum population size that an environment can sustain 
    b) The number of births per year 
    c) The speed of urbanization 
    d) The number of countries in a region 

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📌 Grade 11 Biology
Unit 1: Biology and Technology ,
Unit 2: Characteristics of Animals,
Unit 3: Enzymes,
Unit 4: Genetics 

1. Which of the following is an example of biotechnology? 
   a) Photosynthesis 
   b) Genetic engineering 
   c) Weather forecasting 
   d) Animal migration 

2. What is the primary goal of biotechnology? 
   a) To understand the ecosystem 
   b) To improve living organisms for human benefit 
   c) To study the stars 
   d) To conserve forests 

3. Which of these tools is commonly used in genetic engineering? 
   a) Thermometer 
   b) Microscope 
   c) DNA sequencer 
   d) Telescope 

4. CRISPR technology is used for: 
   a) Gene editing 
   b) Protein synthesis 
   c) Cell division 
   d) Photosynthesis 

5. Which of the following fields benefits from biotechnology? 
   a) Agriculture 
   b) Medicine 
   c) Environmental science 
   d) All of the above 

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6. Animals are primarily characterized by: 
   a) Photosynthesis and movement 
   b) Heterotrophic nutrition and mobility 
   c) Sessile existence and autotrophy 
   d) Lack of a nucleus 

7. Vertebrates are distinguished from invertebrates by the presence of: 
   a) A backbone 
   b) Wings 
   c) Compound eyes 
   d) Tentacles 

8. Which class of animals lays eggs and has feathers? 
   a) Mammals 
   b) Reptiles 
   c) Birds 
   d) Amphibians 

9. Amphibians are unique because they: 
   a) Live only on land 
   b) Live in water as adults 
   c) Have adaptations for both land and water 
   d) Lack vertebrae 

10. Which of the following is a mammal? 
    a) Snake 
    b) Shark 
    c) Dolphin 
    d) Crocodile 

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11. Enzymes are: 
    a) Lipids 
    b) Proteins 
    c) Carbohydrates 
    d) Nucleic acids 

12. The function of enzymes in biological processes is to: 
    a) Supply energy 
    b) Speed up chemical reactions 
    c) Act as a structural component 
    d) Transport oxygen 

13. What is the active site of an enzyme? 
    a) The location where the enzyme is synthesized 
    b) The region where the substrate binds 
    c) The site where enzymes are stored 
    d) The area where energy is produced 

14. Enzyme activity can be affected by: 
    a) Temperature 
    b) pH 
    c) Substrate concentration 
    d) All of the above 

15. Enzymes are specific in their action because: 
    a) They are made of DNA 
    b) Their active site has a unique shape 
    c) They are produced by ribosomes 
    d) They require ATP to function 

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16. DNA is composed of: 
    a) Amino acids 
    b) Nucleotides 
    c) Lipids 
    d) Glucose 

17. Which of the following pairs is a correct base pairing in DNA? 
    a) Adenine and Cytosine 
    b) Guanine and Thymine 
    c) Adenine and Thymine 
    d) Guanine and Uracil 

18. The physical appearance of an organism is its: 
    a) Genotype 
    b) Phenotype 
    c) Allele 
    d) Chromosome 

19. What does a Punnett square show? 
    a) The structure of DNA 
    b) The potential offspring from a genetic cross 
    c) The lifespan of a species 
    d) The number of chromosomes in a cell 

20. A mutation in DNA can result in: 
    a) No change at all 
    b) A change in protein function 
    c) An increase in diversity 
    d) All of the above

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